Why is this not 0 on 50g or Prime?
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07-18-2018, 04:05 PM
Post: #15
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RE: Why is this not 0 on 50g or Prime?
(07-18-2018 01:41 PM)KeithB Wrote:(07-17-2018 10:33 PM)Vtile Wrote: . Also 0/0=1. First of yes, that is the right consensus and mathematically solid definition. Hence my note of my personal rather meaningless philosophical little thinking game. However if 1/inf = 0 and (a/b)/(a/b) = 1 then it would be only reasonable to say that (1/inf)/(1/inf) = 1 and 0/0 = 1. However it is not allowed to declare inf = inf, but inf <> inf is only allowed. For mathematical rigor this (0/0=1) of course is not the case since there is these 'special' rules and blu tack for certain things. |
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