(Plus42) Cash Flow Analysis: NPV, IRR%, MIR%, FMR%

[Werner]

Aha, someone else's equation and coding style ;-)

• I see you keep each 'segment' zero by subtracting the result again.
• A thing I noticed in all Cash Flow equations I've seen so far is that no-one adopted the Horner scheme to obtain the result, as I did. It's a lot simpler... (eg you don't have to keep track of the partial sums of the Nj's)
• All your variables will be solved iteratively. With Plus42's blinding speed, this probably does not make a difference ;-)
  

Thanks for the example, Werner