(Plus42) Cash Flow Analysis: NPV, IRR%, MIR%, FMR%

[Vincent Weber]

Hi Werner,

(02-17-2022 02:40 PM)Werner Wrote:  [*] I see you keep each 'segment' zero by subtracting the result again.

Yes, I prefer it to the 0*, because 0* can sometimes trigger direct solving with undesirable side effects....

Quote:[*] A thing I noticed in all Cash Flow equations I've seen so far is that no-one adopted the Horner scheme to obtain the result, as I did. It's a lot simpler... (eg you don't have to keep track of the partial sums of the Nj's)

All I did was read the 17BII manual "equations used" Appendix, and translate it into the language

Quote:[*] All your variables will be solved iteratively. With Plus42's blinding speed, this probably does not make a difference ;-)
[/list]
Yes indeed, this is what I wanted as explained, and yes, with Plus42 you don't have to worry about speed

Quote:Thanks for the example, Werner

You're most welcome. It is always a pleasure to discuss different approaches [/quote]