The 3n+1 Problem & Beatty Sequences

[Jim Horn]

Thank you! I figured much of that out from the Wikipedia references you supplied. What puzzles me is that the Beatty sequence is by definition endless, while the Collatz conjecture holds that the parity sequence for any finite integer is itself finite. So I don't see how you can get the finite difference of Beatty's sequence of log(3)/log(2) from the parity sequence of any number at all. Expanding log(3)/log(2) as a continued fraction gets me nowhere, and using the "n" that was the sequence of positive integers to feed the parity sequence didn't either.

Looking forward to Reno next month! (my further comments were written orthogonal to the margin and fell down)