Calculator test
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12-12-2024, 08:44 PM
(This post was last modified: 12-13-2024 09:36 AM by Commie.)
Post: #101
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RE: Calculator test
(12-11-2024 08:12 PM)Idnarn Wrote: The above is missing a term: Now back to the original problem, The supposedly missing term turns out to be 'sine circles' were k denotes the wave number of the cycles, \[2k\pi i\] which should be written \[2\pi{k}{i}\]notice, it's a complete wave i.e., \[2\pi\] At the end of the day, our calculators discard sine circles, which was the answer I was looking for. Also, who do think writes the articles for Wikipedia? Cheers Darren TI89T,TI83+,TI84+,TI84+SE,TI84+C,TI84+CE, TI30X-MP,HP50g,HP45,HP15CE,HP35s,Casio cg50,Casio 991cw |
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12-12-2024, 09:14 PM
Post: #102
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RE: Calculator test
(12-12-2024 06:22 PM)AnnoyedOne Wrote: 2.pi is the cycle length for trigonometric functions but -pi/2 to pi/2 works better for some purposes. Its that simple. Can you elaborate a bit more? (12-12-2024 06:22 PM)AnnoyedOne Wrote: Most simply assume that k=1 and move on. eh? Cheers Darren TI89T,TI83+,TI84+,TI84+SE,TI84+C,TI84+CE, TI30X-MP,HP50g,HP45,HP15CE,HP35s,Casio cg50,Casio 991cw |
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12-13-2024, 01:11 PM
Post: #103
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RE: Calculator test
(12-12-2024 09:14 PM)Commie Wrote: Can you elaborate a bit more? If you look at trigometric functions they repeat every 2.pi (or 360 deg). Going from -pi/2 to pi/2 gives their "negative" values although the 0 to pi/2 ones are the same (except for the sign). This is what I meant by cyclical and symmetric. If you're an EE you can see this for yourself on an oscilloscope. No math required. Just eyes. Assuming that k=1 (as calculators do) removes it from the equations. That is 2.pi.k.i becomes 2.pi.i A1 HP-15C (2234A02xxx), HP-16C (2403A02xxx), HP-15C CE (9CJ323-03xxx), HP-20S (2844A16xxx), HP-12C+ (9CJ251) |
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12-13-2024, 02:37 PM
Post: #104
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RE: Calculator test
(12-13-2024 01:11 PM)AnnoyedOne Wrote: Assuming that k=1 (as calculators do) removes it from the equations. But Naddy reckons k can be any integer, how do know which one to use? naddy Wrote:k=…,−2,−1,0,1,2,… So, it turns out, I was not wrong? TI89T,TI83+,TI84+,TI84+SE,TI84+C,TI84+CE, TI30X-MP,HP50g,HP45,HP15CE,HP35s,Casio cg50,Casio 991cw |
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12-13-2024, 02:42 PM
(This post was last modified: 12-13-2024 03:09 PM by AnnoyedOne.)
Post: #105
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RE: Calculator test
(12-13-2024 02:37 PM)Commie Wrote: ...how do know which one to use? Because k=1 is both valid and easy It also results in the "principal value" as the answer. A1 PS: Think of 'k' as the cycle number going off to infinity in both direction. k=1 is end of the "first" cycle. PPS: This is an image of a sinewave on an oscilloscope. See the pattern? Each up/down around zero is a "cycle". https://i.ytimg.com/vi/2ect8INTebU/maxresdefault.jpg HP-15C (2234A02xxx), HP-16C (2403A02xxx), HP-15C CE (9CJ323-03xxx), HP-20S (2844A16xxx), HP-12C+ (9CJ251) |
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12-13-2024, 06:10 PM
(This post was last modified: 12-13-2024 06:12 PM by Albert Chan.)
Post: #106
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RE: Calculator test
(12-13-2024 02:42 PM)AnnoyedOne Wrote: Because k=1 is both valid and easy It also results in the "principal value" as the answer. I think it is k=0, to get a nice transition to real ln, say ln(2) ≈ 0.693, without imaginary part. The reason we like principal value is we have bijective function (one-to-one correspondence). |
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12-13-2024, 06:22 PM
(This post was last modified: 12-13-2024 06:22 PM by AnnoyedOne.)
Post: #107
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RE: Calculator test
(12-13-2024 06:10 PM)Albert Chan Wrote: I think it is k=0, to get a nice transition to real ln, say ln(2) ≈ 0.693, without imaginary part. I think that that this thread is about ln(-1) the result of which is complex but has an "infinite" number of answers (with 'k'). A1 HP-15C (2234A02xxx), HP-16C (2403A02xxx), HP-15C CE (9CJ323-03xxx), HP-20S (2844A16xxx), HP-12C+ (9CJ251) |
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12-13-2024, 06:30 PM
Post: #108
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RE: Calculator test
(12-13-2024 06:10 PM)Albert Chan Wrote:(12-13-2024 02:42 PM)AnnoyedOne Wrote: Because k=1 is both valid and easy It also results in the "principal value" as the answer. You are correct Albert, otherwise the imaginary part 'jumps' or starts from to 2.pi.i A1, what about values below 2.pi? ah,ha we getting somewhere, at last. Cheers Darren TI89T,TI83+,TI84+,TI84+SE,TI84+C,TI84+CE, TI30X-MP,HP50g,HP45,HP15CE,HP35s,Casio cg50,Casio 991cw |
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12-13-2024, 06:34 PM
Post: #109
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RE: Calculator test
(12-13-2024 06:30 PM)Commie Wrote: ...what about values below 2.pi? I'm not sure what you mean. Are you referring to the 2.pi.i component? If so that is the answer. A1 HP-15C (2234A02xxx), HP-16C (2403A02xxx), HP-15C CE (9CJ323-03xxx), HP-20S (2844A16xxx), HP-12C+ (9CJ251) |
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12-13-2024, 06:41 PM
Post: #110
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RE: Calculator test
(12-13-2024 06:22 PM)AnnoyedOne Wrote: I think that that this thread is about ln(-1) the result of which is complex but has an "infinite" number of answers (with 'k'). No, we are talking about the complex logarithm, please keep on topic. Darren TI89T,TI83+,TI84+,TI84+SE,TI84+C,TI84+CE, TI30X-MP,HP50g,HP45,HP15CE,HP35s,Casio cg50,Casio 991cw |
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12-13-2024, 06:56 PM
Post: #111
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RE: Calculator test
(12-13-2024 06:34 PM)AnnoyedOne Wrote: I'm not sure what you mean. Are you referring to the 2.pi.i component? If so that is the answer. How does ln(-1)=pi.i?, if you start with i=2.pi.i with k=1 How does the imaginary i part of the complex logarithm result equate to values below 2.pi if k=1? Cheers Darren TI89T,TI83+,TI84+,TI84+SE,TI84+C,TI84+CE, TI30X-MP,HP50g,HP45,HP15CE,HP35s,Casio cg50,Casio 991cw |
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12-13-2024, 09:46 PM
(This post was last modified: 12-13-2024 09:58 PM by Commie.)
Post: #112
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RE: Calculator test
Hi A1 and Naddy,
In the following equation : \[\ln(re^{i\theta}) = \ln r + i\theta + 2k\pi i\] stated by Idnarn, says that, if k=1 as stated as the principal value by Naddy and A1, then if theta is zero, then i=2.pi. The question then arises, how does the imaginary part of Ln(z) take on values less than 2.pi.? If theta = pi, then according to Naddy and A1, the imaginary part = i.(pi+2.pi) with k=1 right? I look forward to your reply and btw A1, I do know what a sinewave looks like on an oscilloscope. TI89T,TI83+,TI84+,TI84+SE,TI84+C,TI84+CE, TI30X-MP,HP50g,HP45,HP15CE,HP35s,Casio cg50,Casio 991cw |
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12-13-2024, 10:45 PM
Post: #113
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RE: Calculator test
(12-13-2024 09:46 PM)Commie Wrote: Hi A1 and Naddy, I said no such thing. The principal value is \[\ln(r e^{i \theta}) = \ln r + \ln(e^{i \theta}) = \ln r + i \theta\] I think definitions are generally chosen such that you have the principal value at \(k = 0\). The best calculator is the one you actually use. |
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12-14-2024, 05:36 AM
(This post was last modified: 12-14-2024 05:52 AM by Commie.)
Post: #114
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RE: Calculator test
(12-13-2024 10:45 PM)naddy Wrote: I said no such thing. The principal value is \[\ln(r e^{i \theta}) = \ln r + \ln(e^{i \theta}) = \ln r + i \theta\] I think definitions are generally chosen such that you have the principal value at \(k = 0\). Hi Naddy, This what you posted, (12-11-2024 11:14 PM)naddy Wrote: \(k = \dots, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, \dots\) ; i.e., \(k \in \mathbb Z\) And, here is what A1 posted... (12-13-2024 02:42 PM)AnnoyedOne Wrote: Because k=1 is both valid and easy It also results in the "principal value" as the answer. Cheers Darren TI89T,TI83+,TI84+,TI84+SE,TI84+C,TI84+CE, TI30X-MP,HP50g,HP45,HP15CE,HP35s,Casio cg50,Casio 991cw |
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12-14-2024, 09:19 AM
Post: #115
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RE: Calculator test
I think it's better to seek clarification, than to exchange blunt words.
It's also better to wait a bit before responding. Wiser heads might have better responses but not be here all the time. Otherwise we get an escalation, and we get opinions or guesses treated as facts. Slow down, calm down. This is not about scoring points. |
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12-14-2024, 01:19 PM
(This post was last modified: 12-14-2024 01:49 PM by AnnoyedOne.)
Post: #116
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RE: Calculator test
(12-13-2024 10:45 PM)naddy Wrote: I think definitions are generally chosen such that you have the principal value at \(k = 0\). You (and Albert Chan) are probably correct about that. I forgot about the theta.i term which makes any result complex (vs real) except if theta=0 in which case you get ln(r). k=0 makes things even easier This stuff is often drawn in 3D so that the 'i' value is simply a rotation about the y-axis (i.e. is on the z-axis). 2.pi is 360 degrees (a full rotation) which gets you back to where you started (just as with trig functions). That is why the value of 'k' really isn't important. Any integer will work. Negative ones just mean rotating in the other direction. A1 HP-15C (2234A02xxx), HP-16C (2403A02xxx), HP-15C CE (9CJ323-03xxx), HP-20S (2844A16xxx), HP-12C+ (9CJ251) |
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12-14-2024, 02:15 PM
Post: #117
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RE: Calculator test
(12-14-2024 05:36 AM)Commie Wrote: This what you posted, Yes and you seem to have misunderstood me. Let's clarify: Quote:Many complex functions have more than one value for any argument. Typically one [of those values] is designated the principal value, The best calculator is the one you actually use. |
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12-14-2024, 02:29 PM
(This post was last modified: 12-14-2024 02:36 PM by AnnoyedOne.)
Post: #118
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RE: Calculator test
(12-14-2024 02:15 PM)naddy Wrote: Typically one [of those values] is designated the principal value, I never bothered looking up the definition but here it is https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Principal_value Quote:The branch corresponding to k = 0 is known as the principal branch, and along this branch, the values the function takes are known as the principal values. A1 HP-15C (2234A02xxx), HP-16C (2403A02xxx), HP-15C CE (9CJ323-03xxx), HP-20S (2844A16xxx), HP-12C+ (9CJ251) |
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12-14-2024, 09:23 PM
(This post was last modified: 12-15-2024 12:10 PM by Commie.)
Post: #119
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RE: Calculator test
Hi Chaps,
The correct equation for Ln(z)=Ln(x+iy) is: \[ln({x+iy}) = \frac{1}{2}ln({x^{2}+y^{2}})+{i}arctan(\frac{y}{x}) \pm2k\pi i\] Consider, you have z=3-4i. we have Ln(3-4i)=1.6094-0.9273i+0i , k=0 We can take e^(1.6094-0.9273i) = 3-4i back where we started. If we now increment/decrement it's imaginary part by 2.pi then Ln(3-4i)=1.6094-0.9273i+2.pi.i= 1.6094+5.3559i , k=1 we can take e^(1.6094+5.3559i)= 3-4i back where we started. Now increment/decrement it's imaginary part by another 2.pi then Ln(3-4i)=1.6094-0.9273i+4.pi.i= 1.6094+11.6391i k=2 We can take e^(1.6094+11.6391i)= 3-4i back where we started. When k=0, the imaginary is in ground state, i.e., the smallest possible(principal) value for the imaginary i. And so on, these imaginary 2.pi jumps exist between +- infinity. However, no matter how large the imaginary grows in 2.pi increments or decrements, it will always yield, in the example shown, (3-4i) back where we started. The real always stays constant, whilst the imaginary i is quantized in steps of 2.pi. Stay safe guys Darren TI89T,TI83+,TI84+,TI84+SE,TI84+C,TI84+CE, TI30X-MP,HP50g,HP45,HP15CE,HP35s,Casio cg50,Casio 991cw |
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12-14-2024, 10:08 PM
Post: #120
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RE: Calculator test
Just nitpicking:
\[\ln({x+iy}) = \frac{1}{2}\ln\left({x^{2}+y^{2}}\right)+{i}\arctan\left(\frac{y}{x}\right) \pm2k\pi i\] |
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